10 Jul 2014

CSAT-Civil Services Aptitude Test

Civil Services Preliminary examination now restructured as Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT), incorporates certain changes in the preliminary examination pattern.It redefines recruitment process of Civil Services Exam. As is well known, the Test is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) for the enrollment of the three designated-Indian Administrative Services (IAS), Indian Foreign Service (IFS) and Indian Police Service (IPS), under two grades.

CSAT is seen as a definitive step to choose suitable candidates by examining their aptitudes considered essential for decision-making. This is a contrast to the scaling system for different subjects adopted earlier that was considered controversial. However, there will be no changes in the Mains as well as the Interview rounds of the overall examination procedure.

Why CSAT?

Effective since 2011, CSAT as a preliminary test emphasizes more on testing the candidates for their analytical ability rather than the factual and theory-based exam followed earlier. CSAT consists of two papers- Paper I and Paper II – both carry equal marks, It is designed to be independent and neutral for graduates of all disciplines. This concept is purported to be transparent in terms of marks allocated devoid of any bias. It is also meant to examine the logical thought-process communication abilities and fluency in English supposed to be basic to the consequent performance of the candidates in this service.  Moreover, such an examination has made it easier for the UPSC to select more proficient civil servants with a propensity towards logical thinking and efficient communication skills so essential in Civil Services and Administration.So rather than being perceived just as an expert of any one of the subject, it is expected that civil servants are more logical and communicative in their administrative chores of bureaucracy.

Eligibility for CSAT

Any degree holder or a final-year student-awaiting results by July of the academic year-of any discipline from a recognized university.

A General category candidate shall not be less than 21 years or more than 30 years on 1st August  of the examination year. Age relaxations are applicable in case of OBC/SC/ST/PH category students.

Whole general-category candidates can avail four attempts, OBC/PH category students to seven attempts and SC/ST candidates can take any number of times as long as the age limit is within the eligible age.

Minimum Pass Criteria for CSAT

A general category candidate should score about 220 marks to pass CSAT while the range for reserved category candidates is about 180-200 marks.

No separate cut-off mark for Paper I and Paper II as aggregate of both papers is considered.

The CSAT is to select qualifying candidates for the next level exam namely the Mains.  However, the Mains scores are independent regardless of CSAT scores.

About 12,000 candidates out of the lakhs who take the CSAT qualify for the Mains every year.

CSAT Syllabus

Paper I: (200 Marks : Duration 2Hrs)

  • Current events of national and international significance
  • History of India and Indian national movement
  • Indian and World Geography: Physical, Social, Economical
  • Indian Polity and Governance: Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Money, Right Issues
  • Economic and Social Development: Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives
  • General issues on Environmental Ecology, Bio-Diversity and Climate Change
  • General Science

Paper II: (200 Marks-Duration 2Hrs)

  • General Comprehension
  • Interpersonal skills including communication skills
  • Logical reasoning and Analytical Ability
  • Decision-making and Problem-solving
  • General Mental Ability
  • Basic Numeracy: Numbers and their relation, Orders of magnitude, Data Interpretation including charts, graphs, tables etc (Class X level)
  • English language comprehension (Class X level)
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10 Jul 2014

CSAT-Civil Services Aptitude Test

CSAT 2014

CSAT 2014 was conducted in August 2014. The English version as published by the UPSC is reproduced in the Annexure.

A Brief Analytics on 2014 Test

The general trend, since the 2011 Test, is that progressively the degree of difficulty is perceived to have increased.

Most of the questions in paper I, as it can be seen, were of a combination type in the alternative answers, like I only, II only. I & II only or all the three-I, II and III etc.

100 questions were featured in paper I mainly comprising of a wide range of objective questions in General Studies (GS) and General Knowledge (GK) centering on (1) Science-Physics, Chemistry and Biology both theoretical as well as application based questions on agriculture, energy studies etc. (2) Constitution of India, Indian Polity, (3) General current events of general important nature and significance. General degree of difficulty on a scale of 1 to 5 could be placed at a round of 3. As compared to any other GS and GK questions of a Bank PO or any other post graduate level Test, the CSAT’14 can be termed tougher as the range and complexity of questions tested can be found to be of a higher order. Considering that 100 questions are to be covered in 120 minutes, averaging around one minute a question, the paper can be categorized as above-par in terms of speed, accuracy and degree of difficulty.

Paper II of CSAT’14 had predominantly higher number of Reading Comprehension passage questions than others like Logical Reasoning, Mental Ability and Quantitative Ability.The passages were a mix of long and short type interspersed with a curious feature of short passages having more number of questions based on these passages and longer passages having less number of questions featured. The alternatives and answers also were more of the inference, idea-based types than the more straight forward, direct facts – questions or vocabulary questions based in the particular portions of the passage. Mental Ability and Logical Testing questions were of a derivative and analytical types with some sketching or tabulating required to be done to solve them. Least number of questions on  data interpretation. As it is a single paper featuring Reading Comprehension, Logical/Mental/Analytical Ability and Quantitative/Data Interpretation questions all rolled into one paper of a two hour duration, paper II of CSAT in general and 2014 paper in particular can be again treated as above-par on an average scale of similar type of other after graduate tests.

Important Datelines for CSAT 2015

Date of notification 16.05.2015

Date of Receipt of applications 12.06.2015

Date of CSAT 23.08.2015

A general suggested mode of preparation of CSAT 2015 and beyond:

  • Consistent, structured and focused preparation
  • Paper I – Current Affairs knowledge by reading news papers and magazines, GS & GK preparation revising the basic science, history, geography, civics books and reading year books like Times, Malayala Manorama and others. Extensive coverage and preciseness are the key elements of such a preparation.
  • Paper II – A thorough study of principles and practice of Reading Comprehension including speed reading and reading-for-purpose techniques. A good grounding in vocabulary, grammar and composition is essential as building blocks for effective reading comprehension.
  • Equal emphasis on basics of quantitative and numeracy topics with specific data interpretation problems solving.
  • Learning of and familiarity with Logical and Mental Ability problems solving techniques and practice on a variety of direction problems, analytical puzzle-type problems etc.

While each of these aptitude areas require concerted and focused preparation, CSAT as a preliminary test requires that candidates must have a more than average level of overall understanding and proficiency in all general aptitude areas. Thus with a fairly good knowledge, general awareness of things around you and a keen sense of aptitude based knowledge and practice of verbal, quantitative, logical/analytical types, you can confidently crack CSAT.

CSAT ‘14 Paper

1.  If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

(a)  decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy

(b) increase the tax collection of the government

(c) increase the investment expenditure in the economy

(d) increase the total savings in the economy

2.  Consider the following statements

1.  The president shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among ministers of the said business.

2.  All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India :

1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India

2.  A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4.  With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements

1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites.

2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents.

3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

5. Which of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?

(a) Potential energy is released to form free energy

(b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored

(c) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water

(d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out

6. In additon to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person?

1.  Iris scanning

2. Retinal scanning

3.  Voice recognition

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

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10 Jul 2014

CSAT-Civil Services Aptitude Test

7. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants?

1.  Vegetative propagation produces clonal population.

2.  Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus.

3.  Vegetative propagation can be practised most of the year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

8.  Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

                     Spacecraft              Purpose

1. Cassini-Huygens:Orbiting the venus and transmitting data to the Earth

2. Messenger: Mapping and investigating the Mercury

3.  Voyager 1 and 2: Exploring the outer solar system

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

9.  Consider the following pairs

Region Well-known for the production of

1. Kinnaur- Areca nut

2. Mewat- Mango

3. Coromandel- Soya bean

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

10.  Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change?

1. Crystallization of sodium chloride

2. Melting of ice

3. Souring of milk

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

11.  The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

(a) advisory jurisdiction

(b) appellate jurisdiction

(c) original jurisdiction

(d) writ jurisdiction

12. Consider the following techniques/ pheno-mena :

1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants

2. Cytoplasmic male sterility

3. Gene silencing

Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) None

13.  Consider the following statements

1. Maize can be used for the production of starch.

2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.

3.  Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

14.  Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of other three?

(a) Crab

(b) Mite

(c) Scorpion

(d) Spider

15.  The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

(a) the President of India

(b) the Parliament

(c) the Chief Justice of India

(d) the Law Commission

16.  Consider the following towns of India

1. Bhadrachalam

2. Chanderi

3. Kancheepuram

4. Karnal

Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees/fabric?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

17.  Consider the following pairs:

National Highway Cities connected

1. NH 4 Chennai and Hyderabad

2. NH 6  Mumbai and Kolkata

3. NH 15 Ahmedabad and Jodhpur

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?’

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

18. Consider the following international agreements 

1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture

2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification

3. The World Heritage Convention

Which of the above has/have a bearing on the biodiversity?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

19.  Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’ 

1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.

2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.

3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3  only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

20. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?

(a) Diatoms- Crustaceans-Herrings

(b) Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings

(c) Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans

(d) Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms

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CSAT-Civil Services Aptitude Test

21. What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’?

1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this.

3. There is no application of chemical/ inorganic fertilizers at all in this.

4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

22. If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply?

(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference

(b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilometres from the edge of the wetland.

(c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed

(d) It is given the status of “World Heritage Site’

23. Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?

(a) Andaman and Nicobar

(b) Nicobar and Sumatra

(c) Maldives and Lakshadweep

d) Sumatra and Java

24. Consider the following pairs :

      Programme/Project   Ministry

1. Drought-Prone          Ministry of Agriculture

Area Programme

2. Desert Development   Ministry of Environment and Programme Forests

3. National Watershed    Ministry of Rural Development Development Project for Rainfed Areas

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

25. With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements :

1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.

2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness.

3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

26. With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’

(b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level

(c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment

(d) Both (a) and (b)

27.  With reference to technologies for solar power production, consider the following statements :

1. ‘Photovoltaics’ is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while ‘Solar Thermal’ is a technology that utilizes the Sun’s rays to generate heat which is further used in electricity generation process.

2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC).

3. India has manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for Photovoltaics.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

28.  Consider the following languages :

1. Gujarati

2. Kannada

3.  Telugu

Which of the above has /have declared as ‘Classical Language/Languages’ by the Government?

(a)1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

29. Consider the following pairs :

1. Dampa Tiger:Mizoram Reserve

2. Gumti Wildlife:Sikkim Sanctuary

3. Saramati Peak:Nagaland

Which of the above pairs is correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

30.  With reference to a conservation organization called “Wetlands International’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention.

2. It works at the field level is/are to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to Advocate for better policies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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10 Jul 2014

CSAT-Civil Services Aptitude Test

31.  With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements:

1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.

2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only                        (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2             (d) Neither 1 nor 2

32.  Consider the following diseases :

1. Diphtheria

2. Chickenpox

3. Smallpox

Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

33. Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms?

1. Continental drift

2. Glacial cycles

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

34. Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins?

1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers

2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers

3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally

4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

35.  The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to

(a) solve the problem of minorities in India

(b) give effect to the Independence Bill

(c) delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan

(d) enquire into the riots in East Bengal

36. Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use?

1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.

2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

37.  Consider the following :

1. Bats

2. Bears

3. Rodents

The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the above

38.  Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

(a) The Committee on Public Accounts

(b) The Committee on Estimates

(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings

(d) The Committee on Petitions

39.  Which of the following adds carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth?

1.  Volcanic action

2.  Respiration

3.  Photosynthesis

4.  Decay of organic matter

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

40. If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their movement through grasses. Which of the following bird/birds?

1. Painted Stork

2. Common Myna

3. Black-necked Crane

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

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